To commit such crime (burglary), there must be two elements:
1. any part of the body of the offender has been inside the building physically (which the person did).
2. he must have a criminal intent at the time of that physical action, e.g. normally to steal something from that building (which the person did not have).
We are missing the second element of the crime here.
If the person break into the house without any intent to steal, and at the same time he had a genuine belief that the debtor is still living in the building so he could serve a possession order or such a thing. he has NOT committed any crime.作者: Hi-Fi-LP 时间: 2013-8-9 00:33:21
本帖最后由 Hi-Fi-LP 于 2013-8-8 23:38 编辑
fatality 发表于 2013-8-8 07:11
To commit such crime (burglary), there must be two elements:
You are mistaken my friend, I will explain one by one.
FIRSTLY, there are a few exceptions in western laws, in which you dont need an INTENT to commit a crime.
A good example is drink driving: you dont need the intent (I want to get drunk first and then drive). If the fact is that you are drunk and and driving a car at the same time, you have committed the offence.
manslaughter is another one, on this pointm you are wrong. the difference between murder and manslaughter is if the person has the intent to KILL. If I intent to teach you a lesson by striking someone with a basball bat (just to let him know who I am, not to kill him), but I accidentally strike him on the head and he dies. This is manslaughter, because I did not want to kill him.
But 9 out 10, "法律应该是以行为造成的后果为准则" is wrong. In a restaurant, I genuinely believe I take my own jacket, but I accidentally take your jacket, have I stolen it? If someone has some mental health problem and punches another man genuinely believing he is a punchbag, has he committed assault?
The answers are NO, my friend.
SECONDLY about this civil case:
I can give you one example:
I owe you $10000. I live in a million dollar house I drive a $100k car but I refuse to pay you back. you go to the tribunal and finally you get a court order (we take a possession order as an example), the order says I need to pay you back but otherwise the court staff can physically come into my place and get my car auctioned. so the money can be used to pay you back.
Are you happy so far? you should be.
The problem comes in here, if the court staff come come to my place, and try to tow my car, but I say, "hang on, I did not let you guys in my property, you are breaking into my house!!!!" and I call the police. the court staff get trespassed and even arrested and prosecuted for this, will you still be happy? you shouldn't be. you will say, "what the fuck is this fucking law system??? I get a court order, but no one can execute it?????"
have you spotted the problem here my friend? Those people moved in 10 days ago, which could be a very good indication that the debtor has run away recently, and the address that the debt collection person has is still the old one for him.
So the debt collection person or company do not have any intent to commit a crime there, they are just siomply doing their jobs.
I hope this answers your question.作者: fatality 时间: 2013-8-9 08:22:45
警察为啥要搜查令才能进入呢?
1. 警察没有偷东西
2.. 警察确定当事人就主在那里
A search warrant is required, because of the court procedding requirements. If any evidence is unlawfully obtained (seized by police without a search warrant or not pursuant to any warrantless powers), it could have detrimenal effects on the whole case.
But for any urgent circumstances, no search warrant is required.
那按你的逻辑, 警察随便进也不违, Correct! as long as police have a reason, otherwise why would they come into your property?作者: Hi-Fi-LP 时间: 2013-8-10 00:00:34